…and first off, long time listener and first time caller…“love the show”. I understand baseball fans are upset about an imperfect game and feel that it should have been ruled a perfect game thrown by Baltimore pitcher John Means last Wednesday night. Means didn’t give up a run, or a hit and no Seattle batter reached base on an error but one did wind up on 1st base due to a 3rd strike call that the catcher couldn’t handle. According to the rules the runner can steal 1st base if the catcher doesn’t catch the ball. The catcher now has to throw to first to get the runner out which he failed to do. So, despite the batter swinging and missing on a strike 3 call by the ump, if the catcher doesn’t catch the ball, than batter is not out until the catcher recovers and throws the ball to first base. What a dumb rule. If a wild pitch is thrown before a 3rd strike can the runner steal first? I don’t think so. My question is how can it be ruled that no batter reached base on an error? Shouldn’t an error have been called on the catcher for not catching the ball on a 3rd called strike? It allowed the batter to reach base, didn’t it? I’ll hang up and take your answer off the air.